Q&A: "Were The Dark Ages Actually A Time of Cultural Regression Outside of Europe?"
Q&A: "Were The Dark Ages Actually A Time of Cultural Regression Outside of Europe?" originally composed January 14, 2019 Question: "Were the Dark Ages actually a time of cultural regression outside Europe?" Defining and then measuring culture is tricky. For this answer, let’s say that the hallmarks of a civilization include economic prosperity, trade and material wealth, urbanization, safety/security (no invading armies, no rebellions, lower rates of starvation, etc), scientific achievements and prowess, advanced construction and production (be it huge monuments, state-of-the-art boats, or whatever), and artistic achievement. So, based on that measure: No. Actually, while the eurocentric viewpoint teaches us that after the Fall of Rome—the Western part, containing Italy, France, England etc—marked a sudden decline in science, culture, commerce, art, that simply doesn't hold true across the entire globe. The Visigoths, under Alaric I, ...